In a message dated 04/23/2001 2:19:19 PM Central Daylight Time, martee@citlink.net writes: > The question usually is not whether the names > of wives appeared in the deeds of husbands, > it is whether or not by reason of her death > before him, by court entry, by a separate > oath, or by an assent being appended to the > deed, that wife did in fact agree to the > sale. This has been an enlightening discussion, but it hasn't addressed my question which had to do with when changes in practice took place. In my deeds in Sumner Co., TN, shortly after 1800, the wives names were not listed in the body of the deed of sale nor were they questioned separate and apart from their husbands concerning the sale. These are deeds drawn up by men known to be married at the time. I have to fast forward to 1892 to find another deed that doesn't involve an heir, and this deed to farm property included the wife's name in the body of the deed and had a statement by a JP to the effect that she had been questioned separate and apart from her husband. On to 1944, another deed to farm property included the wife's name in the body of the deed and she was not questioned separate and apart from her husband. These changes are no doubt due to changes in Tennessee state laws, and it was for that reason that I addressed my question to Paul, a fellow Tennessean, off list. But I suspect that other states experienced the same or similar evolutions in women's property rights, so I'm readdressing my queston here. Thanks. I'm learning a lot from y'all. Joyce