I asked this question on the Rootsweb Manchester list but no-one seemed to know any answers. I'm sure that someone on this list must be able to help. I'm looking at some Manchester Collegiate church marriages and have noticed that there can be a very long gap between the banns being published and the wedding taking place. Of course, most are just a few days to a week or so but quite a few were up to six months later. Then I came across one where the banns were published more than 2 years previously. That is, in January 1786 for a marriage taking place in March 1788. Are there any rules for how long this gap can be? I would have thought that more than 2 years would have been disallowed and that they should have to call the banns again. After all, there's time for another marriage and the births of a couple of children in this period. Does anyone know the rules? Regards, Irene

According to this website: <http://gumbley.net/mact1.htm> ~~~~~~~~~~~~~~~~~~~ Solemnization of marriage after publication of banns (1) Subject to this Part, where banns have been published, the marriage shall be solemnized in the church or chapel or, as the case may be, one of the churches or chapels in which the banns have been published. (2) Where a marriage is not solemnized within 3 months after the completion of the publication of the banns, that publication shall be void and no clergyman shall solemnize the marriage on the authority thereof. ~~~~~~~~~~~~~~~~~~~~~~~ However, that's now, I'm not sure that it was ever thus! JK On 3 March 2012 16:36, Irene Marlborough <[email protected]> wrote: > > I asked this question on the Rootsweb Manchester list  but no-one seemed to know any answers. I'm sure that someone on this list must be able to help. > > I'm looking at some Manchester Collegiate church marriages and have noticed that there can be a very long gap between the banns being published and the wedding taking place. Of course, most are just a few days to a week or so but quite a few were up to six months later. Then I came across one where the banns were published more than 2 years previously. That is, in January 1786 for a marriage taking place in March 1788. > > Are there any rules for how long this gap can be? I would have thought that more than 2 years would have been disallowed and that they should have to call the banns again. After all, there's time for another marriage and the births of a couple of children in this period. > > Does anyone know the rules? > > Regards, Irene >