I know in PA in the late 1700s a man could not own land unless he was at least 21. Was that the same in the late 1690s? Can I reasonably assume a person who bought land in 1698 was at least 21? **************Dinner Made Easy Newsletter - Simple Meal Ideas for Your Family. Sign Up Now! (http://pr.atwola.com/promoclk/100126575x1221991367x1201443283/aol?redir=http:%2F%2Fad.doubleclick.net%2Fclk%3B215225819%3B37274678%3Bs% 3Fhttp:%2F%2Frecipes.dinnermadeeasy.com%2F%3FESRC%3D622)