A father (A) in his will of 1490 said that his son (B) was not yet 16. (B) died in 1545 after marrying (C) who died in 1549. In his will of 1511, a male (D) believed to be the father of (C) bequeathed considerable property to (B) and (C) for their natural lives thereafter to their four children (E, male), (F, male), (G, female) and (H, female). The children were named in that order with individual properties and land against their name. Someone with the same name as (F) was mentioned in a 'feet of fines' document of 1512 as being married and involved with a property and land transaction. The issue is: Is it possible for (B) to marry after 1490, have four children by 1511, and for one of his sons (F) also to marry and be involved with a property and land transaction in 1512? Any observations would be appreciated ~~ Keith Griffiths