Amelia: I do not know this for a fact, but in all of the land deeds I have had dealings with prior to 1900, I have found the following to hold true: A wife only signed a deed for the SALE of land if: 1: It was land SHE had inherited as an heir from HER family. 2: She was the adminstrator or executrix of her husbands estate and then often her oldest living son or older brother or brother in law would also be responsible. 3: She wasn't a wife at all. Women who never married also inherited land when it came time to divide. I have not seen a deed or any other doc where land was PURCHASED with the wifes signature. I am sure the rules and laws differ from state to state and that this would not always be the case. The research I have done has been in VA, NC, TN, & AL And I have not researched any land dealings 1900 or after. Marsha -----Original Message----- From: APVID@aol.com <APVID@aol.com> To: KYJacksonPurchase-L@rootsweb.com <KYJacksonPurchase-L@rootsweb.com> Date: Wednesday, December 08, 1999 2:53 PM Subject: [KYJP-L] question of Dower >Was it necessary for a wife to sign a deed when land was purchased or did she >only sign at sale to relinquish dower rights? > >Amelia > > >==== KYJacksonPurchase Mailing List ==== >Check out the Jackson Purchase Images Page at http://www.rootsweb.com/~kygraves/temp/JPL.htm >for landowner survey maps of portions of the Jackson Purchase, plus other images. Check it often - it changes as new material >is added. >