singhals wrote: > Maybe I've misunderstood the situation, but it has been MY > understanding that divorces in the 17th century under British/ > English rule were devilishly hard to obtain, either in England or > the Colonies. Legal divorces, yes. It was easier for a man to obtain one than a woman if he had the money. > ...if there's no divorce and nobody died, how'd both halves of the > couple manage to remarry? With a "poor man's divorce" <G> The couple simply split up and remarried, often in another parish where they weren't known. It would have been trickier if the couple stayed in the same parish but where there's a will, there's a way and there's a way to do anything if one has the will to find it :)) Charani <SGBNOSPAM@ mail2genes.invalid>