This is possibly a well-known subject. I am puzzled by a particular instance where a migrant having married in the UK and again in Western Australia when the first wife was still living is clearly evident in the documentation available today. It is nothing to do with a seven year rule as the person was only in Australia for about one year before remarrying. Can anyone help with suggestions for possibilities of documented divorce or "setting-aside" of marriage that might apply? Additionally, could anyone comment on whether this could have been considered "standard practice" at the time. Thanks.

"Peter J. Seymour" <ng@pjsey.demon.co.uk> wrote in message news:vK%mu.62$EM4.41@fx19.fr7... > This is possibly a well-known subject. I am puzzled by a > particular instance where a migrant having married in the UK > and again in Western Australia when the first wife was still > living is clearly evident in the documentation available today. > It is nothing to do with a seven year rule as the person was > only in Australia for about one year before remarrying. > > Can anyone help with suggestions for possibilities of > documented divorce or "setting-aside" of marriage that might > apply? Additionally, could anyone comment on whether this could > have been considered "standard practice" at the time. Hi Peter Before 1974 divorce was quite an expensive undertaking here . You had to prove fault Possibly the party in your example thought they could get away with it due to distance . Haven't really come across any such 'standard practice' considerations Unsure of earlier divorce records for WA .Ask Mr Google Bye -- MargM Beautiful NSW Central Coast