On Thursday, June 9, 2016 at 1:39:13 PM UTC-7, Bernard Morgan via wrote: > The Stewarts's Y-DNA emerges from a common ancestor to the Gaelic tribes > of north Ireland and western Scotland. And the originator of the DF41 > branch is given a age range of about 2000-2500 years ago. > > Given that the Stewarts claimed up to the 17th century to native Gaels > of Scotland, is it correct that they are descended from a Anglo-Breton? > For this idea requires them accept a rhythmer's fantasy as to their > origin and for their ancestors to have travel to Brittany before making > the return trip (via a circuitous route) back to the homeland of the > their ancient relatives. The law of parsimony would suggest we that they > never left Scotland and that the Anglo-Breton origin is a product of > 18th century Anglicization of Scotland History? Genealogy doesn't always follow parsimony, or you wouldn't have a noted Scottish queen who was born to an English prince, not in England but in Hungary. Still, we needn't talk in generalities here. We have the pedigree, the contiguous chain of names running from the Breton nobles to the Stuart kings. Where, then, is the flaw? Which link was the erroneous creation of the those 18th century anglophiles? It may be that the Stuart DNA does not match the accepted Breton pedigree due to a crypto-paternity event, rather than to a conspiracy of historians from 'down there'. taf