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    1. Re: [FRENCH-L] Joseph FRENCH - Why does son-in-law administer his estate?
    2. In a message dated 7/24/2004 6:16:05 AM Central Daylight Time, [email protected] writes: >> Since Joseph (Jr.) was left on 5 pounds and no property that he was not considered mature enough to do the administrator's job. << Usually if a child was left only 5 pounds (sometimes only one shilling) it denotes the he has already received his portion and is most likely married. <<The sale of the property formerly that of Joseph FRENCH in 1765 could be either father or son. Since Joseph (Sr.) died in 1752, some 13 years had passed before the offer for sale which seems strange. Perhaps the administration record of Joseph's estate (if available) would reveal more. << You don't say who sold this property. If a Joseph sold it, that was Joseph, Jr. and the land that he obtained before his father's death. If James Farrelll sold it, it was part of the estate, but should say "formerly that of Joseph French" but the estate of. It wasn't unusual to have 13 years pass for selling property, especially if there were minor children. Julia

    07/24/2004 03:53:14