Is it possible that you have it backwards and the girls were paid FOR their babies? Otherwise it just makes no sense. It isn't that different from today where the living, & medical expenses are paid and then she receives a fee once she signs the papers. You would be surprised what SOME infertile couples are willing to do or PAY to get a baby. Isn't it possible that back in the day a similar thing was happening? Were these babies sent to wealthier homes? This is just an observation, not based on any fact. Cheers, Karen