All of that is quite possible, but if the couple had a child before marriage the vicar or his clerk is likely to have made it very obvious, not leave the fathers name out completely Which is the question posed, ie what explanation could there be bar illegitimacy for no father being recorded Nivard Ovington in Cornwall (UK) On 04-Jun-17 4:40 PM, Margaret ELLIOTT wrote: > Where I lived for a while in Africa it was quite common for the couple to marry AFTER the first child was born, thereby proving that the woman was fertile. If the couple married before having children, and then the wife did not produce a child, divorce was considered entirely appropriate. If the couple wanted to stay together a relative would often give them a child. > > Kind regards > Margaret