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    1. Re: [ABERDEEN] Language or literacy.
    2. Janet
    3. Interesting, and useful Gavin. Was the Gaelic language prevalent in certain areas across Scotland, viz moreso in the Highlands and what of Aberdeen? Did the schools teach English from 1871 or were some of them totally Gaelic. If the latter, then it is more likely some of them would place a cross where they were required to sign their name? It seems possible that children could write their name even if they could not read, or was it the other way round; they could read but not write anything, even their name, without encouragement. Those like mine who were born to parents in the printing industry may be better off than others perhaps. Janet ----- Original Message ----- From: "Gavin Bell" <[email protected]> > > Education was the last of the functions to be transferred from the Kirk > to the State (Poor Law 1845, BDM Registration 1855, School Boards 1871) > but even before that, it would have been unusual indeed for any child to > have escaped education entirely. Each parish had its own "official" > school, funded by the Kirk and the Heritors, but often also a number of > independent schools or teachers who charged lower fees. > > But as Ray has just re-emphasised, reading and writing are two entirely > separate skills, and were not necessarily taught together.

    09/05/2013 05:51:14
    1. Re: [ABERDEEN] Language or literacy.
    2. Gavin Bell
    3. On 05/09/2013 11:51, Janet wrote: > ... > Was the Gaelic language prevalent in certain areas across Scotland, viz moreso in the > Highlands and what of Aberdeen? Aberdeen belongs firmly in the Scots-speaking Lowlands. A few of the more westerly parishes of Aberdeenshire would still have had some Gaelic speakers into the later 19th century. > Did the schools teach English from 1871 or were some of them totally Gaelic. Even in Gaelic-speaking areas, the school would be taught in English. > If the > latter, then it is more likely some of them would place a cross where they were required > to sign their name? I don't see why that should be. > It seems possible that children could write their name even if they could not read, or was > it the other way round; they could read but not write anything, even their name, without > encouragement. Those like mine who were born to parents in the printing industry may be > better off than others perhaps. By the later 19th century, children would be taught both to read and to write. Among my ancestors (who were all in fairly humble circumstances) I have come across only who failed to produce a signature when required for purposes of Registration, and I think that was probably fairly typical. Gavin Bell

    09/05/2013 12:43:12